Dear Uncle Colin

I’m stuck on a trigonometry proof: I need to show that cosec(x)sin(x)0 for 0<x<π. How would you go about it?

- Coming Out Short of Expected Conclusion

Hi, COSEC, and thank you for your message! As is so often the case, there are several ways to approach this.

The most obvious one

The first approach I would try would be to turn the left hand side into a single fraction: 1sin(x)sin(x)1sin2(x)sin(x).

The top of that is cos2(x), so you have cos2(x)sin(x).

In the specified region, cos(x) is non-negative (it is zero at x=π2), while sin(x)>0 (because the endpoints are excluded). Therefore, you have a non-negative number divided by a positive number, which is non-negative, as required.

Working from the range of sin(x)

A really neat alternative is to note that, in the given domain, 0<sin(x)1.

Dividing that through by sin(x), which is ok everywhere, because it’s positive in that domain, we get 0<1cosec(x), which tells us that sin(x)1cosec(x), so sin(x)cosec(x), which means cosec(x)sin(x)>0. .

Hope that helps!

- Uncle Colin