Dear Uncle Colin,

I was doing a STEP paper and it asked me to calculate 01x3arctan(1x1+x)dx, given that 01x41+x2dx=π423.

Nut-uh.

College Asked Me Back: Rocked Interview. Daren’t Get Excited

Hello, CAMBRIDGE! Is this thing on?

Even with the given hint, this is a bit of a mess; however, the arctan knocking about in there is a dead giveaway. It’s integration by parts, and the inverse trig is your u.

In case you didn’t know that ddzarctan(z)=11+z2, you can get it implicitly: if y=arctan(z), then tan(y)=z; sec2(y)dydz=1, so dydz=11+tan2(y)=11+z2.

That’s all well and good, but what about ddxarctan(1x1+x)? Well, that’s just chain rule. The derivative of the argument is 2(1+x)2, so your u works out to be 11+z22(1+x)2, or 2(1+x)2+(1+x)2z2.

Why have I written it like that? It’s because (1+x)2z2=(1x)2, going back to the definition, so the bottom of the fraction is (1+x)2+(1x)2, or 2+2x2 – giving you u=11+x2. This is a good sign: there’s a 1+x2 in the hint we’re given.

If v=x3, then v=14x4, just for the sake of completeness.

Now put it all together: the integral is [uv]0101vudx. That’s [14x4arctan(1x1+x)]01+1401x41+x2dx – and lookit, we’ve got something we know about as our last term!

Better yet, when x=1, the arctan vanishes and you’re left with 0 for the big bracket; when x=0, the x4 vanishes, so the big bracket can be completely ignored. That leaves you with a quarter of the integral you’re given as a hint, so you end up with π1616.

Good luck with the STEP!

-- Uncle Colin